What do you think? Did Jesus become sin on the cross?
2 Corinthians 5:21 states “He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.”
Yet there are so many verses that state Jesus was innocent and sinless (Mt, 27:4; Luke 23:47; John 8:46; 1Peter 1:19; 2:22). How could he become sin?
Various interpretations have been put forward to understand this: 1) Christ was made a sinner, 2) Christ was made a sin-offering, and 3) Christ was made to bear the consequences of our sins. One popular teaching is because Jesus became sin, God forsook him on the cross which is why Jesus uttered, “My God, my God why have You forsaken me?” However, Psalm 22 contradicts this reasoning since this is the Scripture Jesus is quoting while he was on the cross.
A major part of the Old Covenant was the sacrificial offering that provides a type for the sacrifice of Jesus. The Greek word hamartia, translated sin in 2 Corinthians 5:21, is never translated sin-offering in the New Testament however, it is translated sin-offering in Leviticus 4:24 and 5:12 (LXX). It seems consistent with the whole Bible that Jesus was the sin-offering and not that he became sin. How could a sinless person become sin? How could innocent blood be shed on the cross if Jesus became sin?