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This is the ninth post in a moderated debate between Biblical Unitarian Danny Dixon and Trinitarian Marc Taylor. A complete list of posts can be accessed here.

Marc:

This new phase of the discussion is upon us. I hope my questions are understandable. And I hope you can respond in a thorough way as may be necessary. Please note that we do not have full space to respond to the questions we leave for one another unless we do so either in the Comments or in our closing statements (We should have thought about that when we were making the rules for the discussion!)

Authority and Omnipotence

In comment 51 after your 2nd Trinitarian Constructive (4a), you argued:

All authority means all power – omnipotent = Almighty The Father gave it to Him. If anyone has all power for any period of time then that necessitates they are Almighty.

Question #1: Please explain how Jesus was still the Almighty before the Father gave him “all authority” and “all power” that made him omnipotent? You seem to leave the impression that a person can become “Almighty.”

Adam is God’s Son

Question #2: In Luke 3:38, Luke says that Adam is “the son of God.” How is this to be explained?

”You shall know the truth? Dealing with Scholars

Marc, In your Second Rebuttal 3b you wrote:

Comment 20: “Scholars versus scholars is part of my point in John 1:1 and concerning “only-begotten.” As one asserting this assertion is nowhere near airtight at all.

You seem to have indicated here that when, in discussion, one scholar’s opinion is pitted against another scholar, their assertions are “nowhere near airtight at all.” You and I have both cited scholars of equal stature who have held opposite opinions representing Trinitarian and Unitarian positions respectively, so that we might find something “airtight at all” in this discussion.

Question #3: Please explain your process of determining how one is to decide that one supporting scholar’s position should be considered more airtight than another.

Jesus Has a God

In your Second Rebuttal 3b you cite Reicke in the Theological Dictionary of New Testament Theology who wrote: “A new situation is brought into being with the crucifixion and resurrection. The Chosen One seizes the full power which He had from the beginning of the world, Mt. 28:18: ‘All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth’” (5:895, pas – Reicke).

Also in comment #11 of that same Rebuttal 3b you state that “Jesus has a God because he is also a man.” In Revelation 3:12, the resurrected Christ says, “I will make the one who overcomes a pillar in the temple ofmy God”; “and I will write the name of my God and the name of the city of my God—the New Jerusalem which comes down from heave from my God—and my new name upon him” (emphasis added throughout).

Question #4: What is it now that makes the resurrected glorified-again Jesus have a God?

Theos in John 1:1b and John 1:1c

In comment 3 under your Rebuttal 1b I referenced Joseph Henry Thayer, whose lexicon of New Testament Greek to which you have often referred. I noted that Thayer held, particularly regarding Jesus as the Logos in the first few verses of John, the Logos (the Word)―is expressly distinguished from the first cause‖ (J. H. Thayer, Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament [Grand Rapids: Baker, 1977 reprint], p. 133). In other words, the Word is not God the first cause of everything.

Also in comment 19 under your 2nd Trinitarian Constructive (4a), you wrote that “‘God’ can simply denote the ‘Father.’ It is His primary (although not His exclusive) appellation.”

Question #5: In John 1:1 does either designation of “God” simply denote the Father, and if so, please designate that and any other meanings of God in the verse.

Please feel free to elaborate on as many of the above questions as you wish in your response.

Fraternally,
Danny André Dixon

  

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